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Exam Code: JN0-692
Exam Name: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching Support, Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Your currently configured regular expression does not match the AS path shown below:
2135.55 55 55 55 3796
Which three regular expressions would match this path? (Choose three.)
A. "."2135"
B. "2135.*"
C. "* 55(1, 3) *"
D. "2135 55(5) 3796"
E. "2135 55(1, 2) 3796"
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 You have recently added LDP-signaled VPLS to your network. The VPLS connections are
established and you have been asked to verify that the forwarding plane is working properly. Which
three commands would you use? (Choose three.)
A. ping mpls Idp <fec>
B. show vpls connections
C. traceroute mpls Idp <fec>
D. show vpls mac-table
E. show Idp statistics
Answer: A,C,D

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10. R1 and R2 are IS-IS Level 1 routers, but are not forming an adjacency.
Which two reasons would account for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. The remote router is configured for both IPv4 and IPv6.
B. The remote router does not have family iso enabled on its interface,
C. The remote router does not have family clns enabled on its interface.
D. The remote router is not configured to participate in the same Level 1 area
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An OSPF neighbor between routers R1 and R2 is stuck in loading state on R2. What are two
causes? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
B. A firewall filter is blocking OSPF hellos on both sides.
C. The R1 router has received a corrupted link-state request packet.
D. The interface MTU is mismatched between the routers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 One of your router's OSPF adjacencies is down.
What are three reasons for this adjacency state change? (Choose Three)
A. A filter has just been configured on one of the OSPF routers.
B. The OSPF hello value is the same on both routers.
C. The controlling BFD session state has gone down.
D. The authentication key on both routers matches.
E. One of the physical interfaces has gone down.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 You have recently implemented a new Layer 2 VPN and it is not establishing. The show I2vpn
connections command displays an out-of-range state.
What is causing this problem?
A. The local site ID value is too high for the label block.
B. The VRF target community values do not match between sites.
C. The VRF route distinguisher values do not match between sites.
D. The local site ID is not defined.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your OSPF network includes an NSSA. Which LSA type is injected into the NSSA by the ASBR?
A. Type 3
B. Type 5
C. Type 7
D. Type 9
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are asked to retain several routes from an external BGP neighbor in the routing table on
your local router, but you are not allowed to forward traffic to these destinations. You have
configured a forwarding table firewall filter to block these routes, and applied it under the (edit
forwarding-options] hierarchy, but the routes are still showing up in the forwarding table. What is
required to achieve this task?
A. Configure an EBGP import policy on your local router to block the routes.
B. Have the EBGP neighbor configure an export policy to block the routes.
C. Configure an export policy for the forwarding table to block the routes.
D. Use the no-install configuration statement within the EBGP neighbor group on your local router.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have applied a customized EXP rewrite rule on router R1 on the egress of the interface
connecting to router R2. You want to verify if it is working properly. Which two methods would you
use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Apply a rewrite rule on the ingress of R2 for packets coming in from R1 and count those packets
for the new EXP values with a firewall filter as they leave R2.
B. Use the traceroute utility.
C. Use an output filter on R1 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets going to R2.
D. Use an input firewall filter on R2 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets
coming from R1.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 You recently added your autonomous system to an existing BGP confederation. You notice that
a route that had a local preference of 100 now has a local preference of 50. Which statement
explains the change?
A. BGP path attributes such as next hop, local preference, and MED are normally restricted to a
single AS but are allowed to propagate throughout the confederation's AS members.
B. The confederation has sub-ASs that require all IBGP routes to have a local preference of 50 or
below.
C. When your Junos devices joined the confederation, they lost IBGP connectivity to the route in
question; the local preference reverted to 50 once the BGP peering established.
D. The route is being shared through an EBGP peer, and the confederation is propagating the local
preference from the peer.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 630-008
Exam Name: ISM (C.P.M. Module 4: Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 360 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a good indicator of purchasing department
performance?
A. Quality rejection rates for major items.
B. Number of purchase orders issued.
C. Percentage of on-time deliveries.
D. Number of stockout situations.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. A female employee has been
working for Certkiller .com for about 12 years and has 3 years to go until her
scheduled retirement. Recently, she was laid off from her position, and her duties
were absorbed by younger workers in the department. Under which of the following
is she MOST likely to have a claim against the company?
A. Equal Employment Opportunity Act.
B. National Labor Relations Act.
C. Age Discrimination Act.
D. Executive Order 11246.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. You are instructed to reduce
Certkiller .cm's MRO supplier base from 50 to 1. Which of the following would be
your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Buying at the lowest total cost, consistent with quality and service.
B. Achieving a high degree of cooperation with internal customers.
C. Developing reliable alternatives of supply.
D. Optimizing inventory turnover.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following documents is MOST important in transportation?
A. Bill of materials.
B. Bill of lading.
C. Bill of sale.
D. Manifest.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following theories suggests that managers can attain the greatest level
of employee motivation by determining the most desirable outcomes?
A. Theory X.
B. Theory Z.
C. Expectancy theory.
D. Scientific management.
E. Motivation-Hygiene theory.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of promoting from within the
purchasing organization?
A. Keeping morale high.
B. Reducing training costs.
C. Stimulating individual performance.
D. Bringing experience in complementary areas.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is LEAST important when evaluating buyer performance?
A. Quality of work.
B. Quantity of work.
C. Personal appearance.
D. Communication skills.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. An employee that has been at
Certkiller .com for 20-years has become accustomed to coming to work 30-45
minutes late. Initially, this was due to child-rearing responsibilities, but now is a
simply habit. The supervisor has asked the employee several times if there was a
problem and the answer has always been "no." The problem is beginning to have a
negative impact on the morale of the rest of the department. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Dismiss the employee.
B. Have the employee attend counseling sessions.
C. Ask the human resources department to intervene and find a solution to the problem.
D. Set goals with the employee to improve on arrival time, and include a written report in
the employee's file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following methods should a purchasing manager use when evaluating
individual employee performance?
A. Performance standards set by the U.S. Department of Labor.
B. The requirements of the job, including position descriptions.
C. Management By Objectives, whether or not the employee helped set the objectives.
D. Uniform company-wide standards of performance developed by the human resources
department.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following does profit planning begin?
A. Business plans.
B. Long-range strategic plans.
C. Short-range strategic plans.
D. Strategic and operational plans.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. One of your buyers tends to
ignore outstanding purchase orders. This has resulted in numerous complaints from
the shop floor asking the buyer to determine order status. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Inform the buyer to set up a system for follow-up.
B. Computerize the purchasing department operations.
C. Allow shop floor personnel to make their own purchases.
D. Inform the buyer that she will be dismissed if she does not improve her performance.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is generally NOT strategic in nature?
A. New advertising schedule implementation.
B. New dividend policy direction.
C. New product development.
D. New sources of financing.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following would NOT be included in a typical audit of the purchasing
department in a manufacturing operation?
A. Inspection.
B. Organization policy.
C. Purchasing operations.
D. Inventory management.
Answer: A

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NO.14 In which of the following defines a situation where objectives are more general at
the top of an organization and become more specific as one moves down the
organization?
A. Hierarchy of objectives.
B. Management By Objectives (MBO).
C. Decision support system.
D. Goal setting.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding the orientation of a buyer trainee are
FALSE?
A. The trainee should be informed of personal growth opportunities.
B. Orientation and training should be conducted separately during the trainee's initial
months on the job.
C. The trainee should be informed that his/her performance will be evaluated during
orientation and later on.
D. The trainee should be advised of purchasing's major staff and line activities.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Certkiller .com has more than 10,000 employees located on two regional branches
and on several smaller branches. Annual purchases of goods and services for
Certkiller .com exceed $150 million. In which of the following ways would
Certkiller .com LEAST likely benefit from a highly centralized purchasing function?
A. Improvements due to decreased duplication of effort.
B. Adherence to organization-wide standards and objectives.
C. Savings from standardization and improved economies of scale.
D. Satisfaction of product and source preferences for internal customers.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate measure of performance for a
purchasing department?
A. Average time to place requisitions.
B. Total dollars contributed to profits.
C. Total dollars purchased per supplier.
D. Total product cost reduction compared to budget.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the training method that facilitates the development of organization-wide
skills and requires good interpersonal skills called?
A. Functional rotation.
B. On-the-job training.
C. The "buddy" system.
D. Continuing education.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following can BEST enhance a measurement and control system for
evaluating buyer performance?
A. Including the buyer in the design of the system.
B. Including human resources in the design of the system.
C. Making a composite measurement of efficiency and effectiveness.
D. Being sufficiently broad in scope to allow the measurement of all contingencies.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Under which of the following circumstances is negative feedback appropriate?
A. Soon after the occurrence of the faulty behavior.
B. In the presence of other managerial personnel.
C. In the presence of other team members.
D. It is never appropriate.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-004
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing)
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Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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NO.2 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
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A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.5 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.7 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

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NO.8 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.13 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.19 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
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NO.1 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.2 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.5 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.9 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.10 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.11 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.19 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.20 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.21 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.22 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.24 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.28 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.30 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.1 .To perform a successful traceback, the two most prominent problems that need to
be solved are locating the source of IP packets and:
A. the timestamp of the event
B. determining the first node of a connection chain
C. the reflector host
D. the victim port
Answer: B

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NO.2 .In selecting Forensic tools for collecting evidence in the investigation of a crime the
standard for authenticating computer records is:
A. The same for authenticating other records. The degree of authentication does not
vary simply because a record happens to be (or has been at one point) in electronic
form.
B. Much more complex, and requires an expert to be present at each step of the process.
C. To convert the technical terms & definitions into a basic understandable language to
be presented as evidence.
D. To ensure the tools are equipped with logging to document the steps of evidence
collection.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Drive geometry refers to
A. The algorithms used to computer a specific location of a particular segment.
B. The functional dimensions of a drive in terms of the number of heads, cylinders, and
sectors per track.
C. Physical dimensions of the drive platters.
D. The depth of the pits on optical media or magnetic field charge on magnetic media
Answer: B

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NO.4 .A new protocol that is designed to aid in intrusion protection and IP tracebacks is
known as:
A. Intruder Detection and Isolation Protocol (IDIP)
B. Intrusion Detection and Traceback Protocol (IDTP)
C. Facilitating Traceback Protocol (FTP)
D. Intruder Detection and Internet Protocol (IDIP)
Answer: A

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NO.5 ."Interesting data" is:
A. Data relevant to your investigation
B. Pornography
C. Documents, spreadsheets, and databases
D. Schematics or other economic based information
Answer: A

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NO.6 .Stream comparison used as a Traceback technique focuses on what two factors?
A. the IP address and victim port
B. the packet contents and audit logs
C. inter-packet timing and the victim port
D. the packet contents and inter-packet timing
Answer: D

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NO.7 Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C

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NO.8 .What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation and
recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B

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NO.9 .In normal operation, a host receiving packets can determine their source by direct
examination of the source address field in the:
A. The IP packet header
B. Source code
C. Audit logs
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A

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NO.10 .If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be immediately
revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.11 .The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content on
websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.12 .All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
Answer: C

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NO.13 .The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A

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NO.14 .Which of the following are characteristics of electronic Evidence?
A. Cannot be easily altered
B. Is not time sensitive
C. Should follow proper chain of custody
D. Must be decrypted
Answer: C

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NO.15 .What is the difference between a zombie host and a reflector host?
A. Unlike a zombie, a reflector is a laundering host that fundamentally transforms
and/or delays the attacker's communications before they continue down the attack
path. (Zombie technique)
B. Unlike a zombie, a Traceback through the stepping stone host requires determining if
two communications streams, viewed at different points in the network, have the
same origin and are essentially the same stream. (stepping stone Traceback
technique)
C. Unlike a zombie host, the reflector is an uncompromised host that cooperates with
the attack in an innocent manner consistent with its normal function.
D. A zombie is a version of a reflector host.
Answer: C

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NO.16 .Embedding a serial number or watermark into a data file is known as:
A. Hashing
B. Steganography
C. Message Digest
D. Imprinting
Answer: B

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NO.17 .Social engineer is legal in the United States, Great Britain, Canada, and Australia as
long as the social engineer does not:
A. Attempt to extract corporate secrets
B. Lie
C. Apply the Frye Scenario
D. Live outside those countries
Answer: A

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NO.18 .The major disadvantage to techniques that attempt to mark IP packets as they move
through the internet is:
A. A decrease in network efficiency
B. An increase in the packet load
C. An increase in bandwidth consumption
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.19 .The most important network information that should be observed from the logs
during a Traceback is the intruder IP address, the victim IP address, the victim
port, protocol information and the:
A. source port
B. operating system
C. MAC address
D. timestamp
Answer: D

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NO.20 .One caution an investigator should take when examining the source of a network
attack is:
A. an occurrence of Social Engineering
B. relaxed physical security
C. the source IP address may have been spoofed
D. a sniffer could be on the network
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-744
Exam Name: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What best describes a drive in eplaced status?
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery
process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active
drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from
headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this
approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over
data going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide
certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional
information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Answer: A

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NO.6 Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered
Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in
this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.7 You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use
RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Answer: A

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NO.8 When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Answer: B

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NO.9 In the exhibit, which management method is being used?
A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Answer: D

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NO.10 When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository
logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source
logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the
proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the
same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller
firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at
different times.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Answer: C

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NO.13 What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Answer: B

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NO.14 When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are
well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the
problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Answer: D

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NO.16 How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity
from use.
Answer: B

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NO.18 In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up
e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
Answer: A

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NO.19 When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Answer: C

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NO.20 In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on
logical drive" indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Answer: A

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