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Exam Code: 250-510
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A.date fields
B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C.column names in the first row
D.country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?
A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText
B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData
C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled
D.Lexer.Validate
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

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NO.4 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A.Network Discover
B.Network Protect
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)
A.to provide incident detail to policy violators
B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review
C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history
D.to provide detail when closing an incident
E.to provide incident detail for report filtering
Answer: CD

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NO.6 What are two benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide? (Select two.)
A.provides accurate measurement of encrypted outgoing email
B.gives insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identifies who has access to sensitive data
D.indicates where sensitive data is being sent
E.measures encryption strength for sensitive data
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier
policies such as IDM or EDM?
A.is.ead
B.ttds.ead
C.ks.ead
D.cg.ead
Answer: B

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NO.9 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A.manually quarantine files
B.automatically quarantine files on file shares
C.modify a response within a policy
D.automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E.apply digital rights to content
Answer: AE

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NO.11 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Incident Dashboard
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

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NO.13 What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user
interface?
A.selinux
B.iptables
C.xwindows
D.ssh
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?
A.CSV Lookup
B.Live LDAP Lookup
C.Active Directory Integration Lookup
D.Directory Server Lookup
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are two examples of confidential data? (Select two.)
A.manufacturing plant locations
B.published press releases
C.stock performance history
D.CAD drawings
E.employee health information
Answer: DE

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NO.17 Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?
A.Endpoint: Notify
B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS
C.Protect: Quarantine File
D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
Answer: AE

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NO.19 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.policy creation
B.detection of incidents
C.inspection of network communication
D.identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select two.)
A.DLP is best implemented as a departmental initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by the network team.
C.An incident response team is rarely required.
D.Employee education is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: DE

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Exam Code: ST0-096
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2010(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How can an administrator install the Backup Exec Database (BEDB) when installing Symantec Backup
Exec 2010 on a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A.locally, using Microsoft SQL Express
B.remotely, using Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C.remotely, using MySQL
D.locally, using Microsoft SQL 2005 in read-only mode
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two database versions can be used to store the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Database
(BEDB)? (Select two.)
A.Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine 2000 SP3a
B.Microsoft SQL Express 2005 SP3
C.Microsoft SQL 2000 SP3a
D.Microsoft SQL 2008
E.Microsoft SQL 2005 SP2
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 2010 installation?
A.Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B.media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C.Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D.media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two rights does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 assign to the Backup Exec Service Account
during installation? (Select two.)
A.Log on as a service
B.Log on as administrator
C.Create a token object
D.Create a token administrator
E.Manage operator rights
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which job can Symantec Backup Exec 2010 be configured to run when certain Symantec ThreatCon
levels are reached?
A.virus scan
B.backup
C.duplicate backup
D.restore
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 option allows backup of a NetApp filer?
A.Advanced Disk-Based Backup Option
B.NDMP Option
C.NAS Option
D.Remote Agent for NDMP devices
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which type of backup is used for an online database and other files that are open and in use by other
applications?
A.snapshot
B.flat
C.active
D.hot
Answer: A

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NO.8 If LiveUpdate fails to install a patch, which file contains information to troubleshoot this issue?
A.Bkupinst.log
B.Bkupinst.htm
C.Liveupdate.htm
D.Liveupdate.log
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 utility automatically scans a computer targeted for installation and
reports on system requirements?
A.Backup Exec Installation Check
B.Backup Exec Diagnostic Check
C.Backup Exec Environment Check
D.Backup Exec Prerequisite Check
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the trial period for Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.7 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.120 days
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is supported by Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Windows NT 4.0
B.Lotus Domino
C.Tivoli Storage Manager
D.Microsoft Data Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.12 What does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 use to track contents of media?
A.catalogs
B.job logs
C.media headers
D.media sets
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two supported processor types for installing and running a Symantec Backup Exec 2010
media server? (Select two.)
A.AMD
B.Itanium
C.RISC
D.Xeon
E.SPARC
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Which versions of Symantec Backup Exec is supported for direct upgrade to Symantec Backup Exec
2010?
A.version 8.x and later
B.version 9.x and later
C.version 10.x and later
D.version 11.x and later
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which option is included with a server license in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
B.Advanced Disk-based Backup Option (ADBO)
C.Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
D.Granular Recovery Technology Option (GRT)
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Agents can use Granular Recovery Technology? (Select two.)
A.Active Directory Recovery Agent
B.Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C.Agent for Lotus Domino
D.Agent for Oracle on Windows or Linux Servers
E.Agent for Enterprise Vault
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which added functionality becomes available when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM),
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), and Symantec Backup Exec 2010 (BE) are installed on the same
computer?
A.BE jobs can invoke a virus scan without using a script.
B.BE will display information from SEPM.
C.SEPM can initiate BE restore jobs.
D.SEP will quarantine virus-infected files and initiate a backup.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is stored directly in the Symantec Backup Exec Database (BEDB)?
A.alerts
B.job logs
C.license information
D.role-based security credentials
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A.Symantec Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B.Symantec Backup Exec Deduplication Option
C.Symantec Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D.Symantec Backup Exec Granular Recovery Option
E.Symantec Backup Exec Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
Answer: BE

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NO.20 Which two functions does the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server perform? (Select two.)
A.controls and manages backup and restore operations
B.controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C.controls role-based security
D.attaches to and controls storage device hardware
E.creates image-based system backups
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 250-370
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 223 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which two components does OpsCenter Analytics replace? (Select two.)
A. backup reporter
B. open storage option
C. operations manager
D. shared storage option
E. Java console
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes?(Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which component of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 includes Symantec NetBackup encryption?
A. master server
B. bare metal restore
C. client
D. EMM server
Answer: C

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NO.8 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Controlcolumn
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.14 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.15 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list
thatincludes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy
Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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NO.17 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.19 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.20 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs. What should be done
to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
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NO.1 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.2 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.6 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.7 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.16 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.18 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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Exam Code: 250-511
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec(TM) Data Loss Prevention 11)
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Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.6 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.7 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

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NO.11 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.13 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

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NO.17 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to communicate
back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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NO.19 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB. Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A,E

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the critical business assets management feature?
A.It enables automatic identification and prioritization of security threats that impact business-critical
applications.
B.It obtains an overview of business assets.
C.It makes it possible to change collectors' configurations to meet business assets needs.
D.It provides a visual picture of where critical business assets are located.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which database houses incidents and summary data?
A.Oracle
B.MySQL
C.MSSQL
D.IBM DB2
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the specified minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the Symantec
Security Information Manager Console?
A.1 GB RAM and 1 GB disk space
B.1 GB RAM and 512 MB disk space
C.512 MB RAM and 1 GB disk space
D.512 MB RAM and 103 MB disk space
Answer: D

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NO.4 Symantec Security Information Manager Series Appliance installs which operating system by default?
A.Solaris
B.Windows
C.SUSE
D.Red Hat
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are all on-box collectors?
A.PIX, UNIX Syslog and Data Leakage Prevention
B.Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C.PIX, Snort and Symantec Web Gateway
D.Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Control Compliance Suite
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following vendor hardware is recommended to use with Symantec Security Information
Manager (SSIM)?
A.IBM
B.NEC
C.Dell
D.Hitachi
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does the Correlation Engine analyze events against once all rules are properly defined?
A.the rule criteria, create triggers, and correlate conclusions into incidents
B.false positives, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
C.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
D.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and send conclusions to the database
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which component escalates security events into incidents?
A.rules
B.events
C.incidents
D.tickets
Answer: A

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NO.9 On which two operating systems can the Symantec Security Information Manager Agent be installed?
(Select two.)
A.Solaris 9
B.Windows 2000
C.Centos
D.IBM AIX 5
E.HP-UX 11
Answer: AB

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NO.10 What information must be obtained prior to product deployment and configuration of the Symantec
Security Information Manager appliance?
A.which on-box collectors are appropriate for installation
B.the number of nodes found in the customer's infrastructure
C.the number of security events per day the appliance will handle
D.the air-conditioning and power requirements
Answer: A

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NO.11 What information is necessary to properly size a deployment?
A.hard drive space, events per second and geographic locations
B.events per second,collector types and incident-to-event ratio
C.hard drive space, incidents per second and collector types
D.events per second, geographic locations and event-to-incident ratio
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the difference between Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box and off-box
collectors?
A.Off-box collectors are installed on the SSIM products and on-box collectors are installed on the
appliance.
B.On-box collectors are installed prior to SSIM software installation and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
C.On-box collectors are automatically installed with the SSIM software and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
D.Off-box collectors are installed on the appliance and on-box collectors are installed on assets.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content in near-realtime
from Symantec?
A.LiveUpdate
B.LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C.Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D.Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which tab on the Information Manager Console allows you to view threat and vulnerability information?
A.Rules
B.Dashboard
C.Reports
D.Intelligence
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is Device-level aggregation?
A.parsing data with data sensors
B.grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C.forwarding event data to the appliance
D.event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.16 Where do Symantec Security Information Manager collectors send events?
A.Event Disposition
B.Event Archive
C.Event Reporting
D.Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are the hard drive specifications for the hardware?
A.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 5)
B.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 10)
C.6 drives (RAID 5)
D.2 drives (mirrored)
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which component sends events to the Event Service for processing?
A.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) collector
B.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box collector
C.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) off-box collector
D.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) agent
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which third-party software components support LDAP for users, roles, and configurations?
A.IBM Directory Server
B.Microsoft Active Directory Server
C.IBM DB2 8.1
D.IBM DB2 8.2
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which OS listed does hardware used for the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) image
support?
A.SUSE
B.Centos
C.Redhat
D.SE Linux
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-252
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.2 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.5 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.10 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.11 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.14 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.15 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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