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Exam Code: HP2-K34
Exam Name: HP (Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statement is correct about using the Guided Maintenance (GM) scripts on an HP 3PAR
StoreServ system?
A. The GM scripts have to be run on a 3PARsvc to replace the drive chassis midplane.
B. The Service Processor and node clock battery cannot be removed and replaced by using the GM
scripts.
C. The GM scripts have to be run on a 3PARsvc to replace the Service Processor.
D. The Controller Node and drive cage cannot be removed and replaced by using the GM scripts.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which zoning rule must be followed to implement Remote Copy over Fibre Channel?
A. Every FC port used for Remote Copy should be zoned with the hosts whose LUNs are replicating.
B. All FC ports on odd nodes should be zoned with the FC ports on the even remote node.
C. A Remote Copy FC port should be zoned to only one other Remote Copy FC port on another
system.
D. All Remote Copy FC ports in a storage server should be placed in the same zone.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are discussing solutions with a customer who wants to use Peer Motion on the HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7400. The customer inquires about the specific requirements and limitations of this
solution. What should you tell them to consider?
A. A maximum of 150 Peer Motion migration tasks can be created by PMM, but only nine of them
run in parallel; the task moves region by region.
B. The destination array requires two free FC ports for Peer Motion: one port in peer mode to
connect to the source array and one to connect to the host that owns the VLUNs that will be
migrated.
C. Volumes in a 3PAR domain on the source array will be placed in the same domain on the
destination array
D. Peer Motion acts as a host-based volume-mirroring solution and requires a license installed on
the source and on the destination array.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which situation prevents you from using SmartStart to install an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
system at a customer site?
A. DHCP is not running in the customer environment
B. The customer will not allow remote access of the Service Processor
C. The controller nodes and the service processor are connected to the same network.
D. All the customer servers are running Windows 2008 R2.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which HP resource can be used to obtain the latest information on operating system support
in an
HP 3PAR Storage System environment?
A. HP Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge
B. HP 3PAR Storage System Information Library
C. HP Product Bulletin
D. HP Active Answers
Answer: A

HP   HP2-K34   HP2-K34   HP2-K34 original questions
Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/14433_na/14433_na.pdf(page 3, see
the text in blue)

NO.6 As a consultant, you are configuring Peer Motion during an initial setup of the HP 3PAR
StoreServ systems. What must you consider to ensure the correct configuration of a Peer Motion
environment?
A. Executing the Peer Motion Manager script requires Browse user-rights for the accounts used to
log in to the source array and Super user-rights for the destination array.
B. Two FC switches are required; only fabric connections on initiator ports are supported, and the
host and source system must use the same IP protocol version.
C. The Peer Motion Manager script executes in a command window of Microsoft Windows running
on a Peer Motion Manager Server.
D. The WWN of the VLUNs imported to the new array will become the S/N of the legacy array.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are running the SmartStart Installation procedure to install an HP StoreServ 7400 Storage
System. Which users, created during the installation process, will have access to this storage system?
(Select two.)
A. 3paradm
B. 3parcust
C. 3parAO
D. 3parSP
E. 3PARrm
Answer: A,B

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Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03606526 /c036065
2 6.pdf(search for 3paradm and 3parcust)

NO.8 When using notification settings in Service Tools and Technical Support (STaTS). Which task
can you perform with Symptom?
A. Disable a specific notification
B. Enable a specific notification
C. Create a notification record.
D. Manage a set of notifications.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03606505 /c036065
0 5.pdf(page 11)

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Exam Code: HP0-J61
Exam Name: HP (Delta - Designing HP SMB Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is a main benefit of HP StoreOnce deduplication?
A. It optimizes storage capacity to retain more data within a disk backup device.
B. It allows the devices that contain the data to be thinly provisioned.
C. It enables snapshot of deduplicated data to be made easily.
D. It encrypts data to prevent corruption during the backup cycle.
Answer: A

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Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13218_div/13218_div.pdf (page 4,
see improve backup efficiency with data deduplication)

NO.2 A customer to migrate date to a new database environment. They need to make a physical
copy of and their data that can be presented to the new environment with the highest level of
availability.
Which form of replication should the customer use?
A. Asynchronous replication
B. Backup to disk
C. Clones
D. Snapshot
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer plans to implement an HP StoreVirtual 4130 Storage System.
They need 7 TB of usable capacity using network RAID 10.
How many HP StoreVirtual 4130 Storage will they need to meet this requirement?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer plans to purchase an HP StoreVirtual 4330 System to use as a shared backup
repository. They need to select the storage system model that will help them maximize storage and
minimize storage and minimize costs.
Which type of devices should the HP StoreVirtual 4330 model contain?
A. 900 GB 10k drives
B. 1 TB 7.2k drives
C. 2 TB 7.2k drives
D. 3 TB 7.2k drives
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer needs to balance high availability and cost to meet various service level
agreements, depending on the application requirements.
Which storage methodology should the customer use?
A. Storage RAID
B. Storage tiering
C. Storage federation
D. Deduplication storage
Answer: C

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NO.6 A storage administrator is migrating data from a third party storage system to an HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7000 Storage System. The administrator needs to ensure that certain hosts will be
managed by only specific user accounts?
What should be included in the designed solution?
A. Common provisioning groups
B. Virtual domains
C. Active Directory Integration
D. Logical volumes
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is planning to migrate data from an HP EVA4400 to an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
Storage System.
What should the customer use to migrate the data?
A. Online Import
B. Recovery Manager
C. Remote Copy
D. Peer Motion
Answer: A

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Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-3999ENW.pdf (page 26,
conclusion)

NO.8 A company's storage infrastructure has grown dynamically, heterogeneously, and largest in
scale. As a result, the infrastructure is more difficult to merge. The company needs to eliminate
manual, repetitive, and error-prone administrative tasks.
What should the company use to achieve this goal?
A. Thin provisioning
B. Storage tiring
C. Hierarchical storage management
D. Autonomic management
Answer: D

HP certification   HP0-J61   HP0-J61 test answers
Reference:
http://www.ts.avnet.com/uk/vendors/hp/assets/hp_p10000_3par_architecture_white_paper.pdf
(page 2, last bulleted point on the page)

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Exam Code: HP2-W100
Exam Name: HP (HP TippingPoint Next Generation Firewall Security Products Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which protocol creates a complete database of the network topology prior to calculating the
optimal route?
A. OSPF
B. PIM
C. RIP
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which tasks can be scheduled on an HP TippingPoint SMS? (Select three.)
A. DV distribution
B. Reports
C. Profile distribution
D. System snapshots
E. Profile activation
F. DV Activation
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which Security Zone Property identifies members so that you can apply policies to them?
A. TCP-RST
B. Inspection Policies
C. Named Resources
D. Inspection Profiles
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you configure the NGFW appliance in transparent firewall mode, which configuration is
mandatory?
A. Bridge Group(s)
B. Static routes
C. NAT
D. Dynamic MAC address learning
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your organization wants to allow users to access Facebook but not Facebook Chat Which rules
allow the organization to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. Block + Notify Social Media
B. Permit + Notify Social Media Chat
C. Block + Notify Social Media Chat
D. Permit Social Media Chat
E. Block Social Media
F. Permit Social Media
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 If you want to configure the SMS database retention criteria, which maintenance option
should you choose?
A. Cleanup Now
B. Reset
C. Edit
D. Refresh
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HH0-400
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which is required for I/O consistent recoverability?
A.Clustering software is in use at the recovery facility.
B.Recovery volumes have preserved write order fidelity.
C.Buffers on production hosts were fully de-staged to physical disk.
D.Log shipping is used to transfer transactions to the recovery facility.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy
Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)
D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network
overhead
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A.A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B.RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C.Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from
merging.
D.Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage
array.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What are three regulatory requirements pertaining to data retention? (Choose three.)
A.Basel II
B.ISO 9000
C.SEC rule 17a
D.Email Archiving
E.Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Basel II is the second Basel Accord and represents recommendations by bank supervisors and central
bankers from 13 countries making up the Basel Committee on banking supervision to revise the
international standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank's capital.
Which three statements are true for Basel II? (Choose three.)
A.It can easily be circumvented by regulatory arbitrage.
B.It ensures that capital allocation is less risk conscious.
C.It ensures that capital allocation is more risk conscious.
D.It separates operational risk from credit risk, and quantifies both.
E.It attempts to align economic and regulatory capital more closely to reduce the scope for regulatory
arbitrage.
Answer: CDE

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NO.7 A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database's data and log volumes.
Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly
dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery
facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the
corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and
prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two statements are true for RPO? (Choose two.)
A.If the recovery point is within hours, no replication is necessary.
B.If the recovery point is within minutes, asynchronous (or off-line) replication may be suitable.
C.If the recovery point of an application is set to within seconds of a disaster occurring, synchronous (or
live) replication (duplication) of data should be considered.
D.Global clustering, manual migration or tape restore are various options that are dependent on the
acceptable time scales required to restore systems to full operations.
Answer: BC

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NO.9 A customer's regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site
regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment.
How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database's data and log
volumes.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: HH0-260
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Certified Implementer File Services)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer expects to store 4 billion objects with an initial HCP configuration. Search is not
required at this time.
Which configuration will meet the requirements for this customer?
A. HCP 300 with ten storage nodes
B. HCP 500 with two storage nodes
C. HCP 300 with four storage nodes
D. HCP 500 with eight storage nodes
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the HCP back-end network? (Choose two.)
A. All nodes in a HCP system must be on the same system-specific private back-end IP subnet.
B. All nodes in a HCP system must be split across a dual-redundant private back-end IP subnet.
C. The fourth octet of the back-end IP addresses should not be changed after it has been
configured.
D. The fourth octet of the back-end IP addresses must match the fourth octets used in the front-end
IP
addresses.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which node architecture is used by the HCP 500?
A. SAIN
B. PAIN
C. RAIN
D. NAIN
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the required zone configuration of a SAN fabric to support a HCP 500?
A. one global zone containing all HCP nodes World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the HBA ports and
the
storage ports
B. one zone per HCP node containing two members: World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the HBA
port
and the storage port
C. two mirrored zones; one containing the even numbered World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the
HBA
port and the storage port; the other containing odd numbered ports
D. two zones: one zone containing all HCP nodes World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the HBA ports
and
the second zone containing all the storage ports
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer wants to ingest around 1 million files residing in several Windows 2003 and
RedHat Linux servers into three newly created HCP tenants and namespaces.
Which two procedures do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from HCP client tools for Linux.
B. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from Linux server.
C. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from HCP client tools for Windows.
D. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from Windows server.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 You are adding two more volumes into each node of a HCP 500 DL. The storage administrator
informs you that all SAN volumes have been created, zoned and presented to the HCP.
Which LUN number presented to the HCP will cause a problem.?
A. 5
B. 128
C. 130
D. 131
Answer: B

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NO.7 A storage administrator on a customer site is performing a diagnosis of the HCP system by
reviewing the system event logs.
Which two are recorded in the system events log? (Choose two.)
A. logical volume failures
B. namespace list
C. users deleted
D. roles assigned
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which OS LUN size do all HCP 300 configurations use?
A. 20 GB
B. 30 GB
C. 50 GB
D. 400 GB
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which three statements are true about encryption on a HCP? (Choose three.)
A. Once enabled, encryption cannot be disabled.
B. The encryption key is accessible through the system management console.
C. Encryption can only be enabled at the time of installation.
D. The encryption key must be written down and given to the customer.
E. The encryption key is displayed several times during the installation process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which two factors should you consider prior to performing an upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. the physical location of the highest numbered search node
B. the physical location of the highest numbered storage node
C. the install user password
D. the service user password
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which three replication types are supported by HCP? (Choose three.)
A. chain
B. many-to-one
C. one-to-many
D. bidirectional
E. link level
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which three tenant management console permissions does the security role have on a HCP?
(Choose three.)
A. View namespace access protocol configurations.
B. View tenant log messages about security events.
C. View tenant overview.
D. Monitor replication.
E. Modify tenant management console security settings (HCP tenants only).
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.13 You have performed an upgrade on a customer's HCP. You complete the upgrade and verify
that all the nodes are online and then give the system back to the customer. A few minutes later,
the customer
complains that they can read existing content but they cannot create new content on the HCP.
Which step was missed?
A. The install user password was changed.
B. The upgrade was not committed.
C. The rollback was not performed.
D. The system management console is disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are establishing a replication link between two HCP platforms. You set the performance
level as
part of the configuration options. What does this setting indicate?
A. the server priority rate for nodes associated with that replication link
B. the amount of bandwidth made available for replication on the link
C. the number of concurrent replication operations that can occur on each node
D. the data transfer rate associated with each tenant namespace
Answer: C

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NO.15 In a SAIN based HCP solution, which RAID protection scheme is considered standard use with
an
AMS 2000 system?
A. RAID 5 (6+1)
B. RAID 6 (5+2)
C. RAID 6 (6+2)
D. RAID 5 (7+1)
Answer: B

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NO.16 A customer will be removing old Windows file servers and moving existing data to the default
namespace on their new HCP 500.
Which protocol is recommended to accomplish the move?
A. CIFS
B. HTTP
C. REST
D. NFS
Answer: A

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NO.17 How should the RAID group(s) and logical volume(s) be configured on a HCP 300 node?
A. three RAID groups each with three logical volumes
B. three RAID groups each with a single logical volume
C. a single RAID group with a single logical volume
D. a single RAID group with three logical volumes
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer has an existing HCP 500 consisting of four storages nodes. They have just
purchased an additional HCP 500 and you are informed that you will be performing the replication
setup.
What is the requirement prior to setting up replication?
A. trusted replication server certificates
B. replication link
C. outbound link name
D. inbound link name
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are configuring a HCP 500 solution with AMS 2100 storage. You choose to configure the
storage devices first in the list of tasks associated with this process.
What is the reason for sequencing the tasks in this way?
A. The HCP software must first be installed on the AMS 2100 for access.
B. Formatting the storage containers will take a considerable amount of time.
C. You must have the data LUNs established before you can install the core OS.
D. The HCP command LUN must be established on the AMS 2100.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your customer wants to use IP addresses which conflict with the default HCP network
settings. As a result you need to change the back-end IP addresses for each HCP node.
Which HCP network settings should you change?
A. the back-end gateway router IP address
B. the back-end subnet mask
C. the first three octets of the back-end IP addresses
D. the fourth octet of the back-end IP addresses
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HD0-300
Exam Name: HDI (Help Desk Manager)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System
produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the
phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number
of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.
Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization's performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. Average After Call Work Time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level
Agreement? (Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to
new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and
concerns.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods?
(Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the
analyst can effectively multitask?
A. handles stress and prioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on
a decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a
reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. System are more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards?
(Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time
employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by
their company.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help
Desk in the morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B

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NO.12 What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?
A. the support center's budget requirements
B. the support center's staffing requirements
C. the support center's implementation timelines
D. the support center's role in the corporate vision
Answer: D

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NO.13 Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level
at which that service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an
open and positive work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your
communication? (Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee's mentor
C. the employee's manager
D. the employee's team leader
Answer: A

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NO.17 What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing
unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country.
An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B

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NO.19 An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide
to move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses
their concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still
decide to implement your off-schedule shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?
(Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: GB0-280
Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Routing Networks)
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Total Q&A: 400 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 OSPF categorizes the AS external route into 2 parts: Type 1 and Type 2. Which of the following
are Type 1 AS external routes? ( )
A. Imported static routes.
B. Imported RIP routes.
C. Imported routes from other ASs.
D. Imported BGP routes.
Answer: A,B,C

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Topic 4, B
B

NO.2 According to the OSPF protocol, for a intra-area router operating in the Stub area, which kind
of
LSA is impossible to appear in its LSDB? ( )
A. Router LSA (Type = 1);
B. Network LSA (Type = 2);
C. Network Summary LSA (Type = 3);
D. ASBR Summary LSA (Type = 4);
E. AS External LSA (Type = 5);
Answer: E

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Topic 1, D
D

NO.3 Which of the following are right about BGP confederation? ( )
A. It partitions an AS into several sub-ASs. The IBGP peer in the sub-AS fully connects to each
other, and meanwhile connects to other sub-ASs.
B. The confederation can easily detect the route loop in the AS.
C. EBGP is adopted between the sub-ASs, the confederation itself and the AS external.
D. Such important information as the next hop, MED and Local-Preference will not lose when
traversing the sub-AS.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Topic 6, E
E

NO.4 Which of the following are the wrong description to the BGP route attributes? ( )
A. The router should propagate the attribute to other peers when it receives a transitional attribute,
such as metric.
B. Mandatory attributes refer to the essential attribute of each route, such as the next hop; while
the optional can be omitted.
C. Local-preference is for the route to reach the destination with priority in the AS internal.
D. Community identifies a group of routers with the same attributes. It has something to do with
the AS, but nothing with the IP subnet.
Answer: A,D

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Topic 7, G
G

NO.5 Which of the following are right about BGP route dampening? ( )
A. BGP route dampening is caused by the un-stability of the route.
B. The penalty of route flapping becomes heavier with time going.
C. The route under penalty will not be notified until it disappears from the routing table.
D. When there is route flapping, the Update packet will be advertised repeatedly in the network.
Answer: A,D

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Topic 3, F
F

NO.6 Topic 1, D
D
1. To check the IP address of the DR and BDR in the OSPF area, you can use ( )
A. display ospf routing
B. display ospf error
C. display ospf interface
D. display ospf peer
Answer: C,D

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Topic 2, A
A

NO.7 What are the preparations before you make IKE configuration? ( )
A. Decide the authentication algorithm during the IKE exchange.
B. Decide the encryption algorithm during the IKE exchange.
C. Decide the DH algorithm during the IKE exchange.
D. Decide the identity authentication mechanism for the exchange parties.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Topic 5, C
C

NO.8 For a router running the OSPF protocol, Router ID is the unique identifier of a router.
According to
the protocol, the Router ID must be unique in the following scope ( )
A. In the network segment
B. In the area
C. In the AS internal
D. In the whole Internet
Answer: C

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Topic 4, B
B

NO.9 Which of the following are right about the ACL rule in the IPSEC? ( )
A. permit means to enable IPSEC on the defined data flow
B. deny means to transparently transmit and disable the IPSEC on the defined data flow
C. Data flow without definition will be discarded
D. Data flow without definition will be transparently transmitted
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Between IBGP peers is not always physically direct-connected; while between the EBGP peers
there must be a physically connected link. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Topic 6, E
E

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Exam Code: FCNSA.v5
Exam Name: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Network Security Administrator (FCNSA.v5))
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as simple text, wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit updates banned words on a periodic basis.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following antivirus and attack definition update options are supported by
FortiGate units? (Select all that apply.)
A. Manual update by downloading the signatures from the support site.
B. Pull updates from the FortiGate device
C. Push updates from the FortiGuard Distribution Network.
D. "update-AV/AS" command from the CLI
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 How is traffic routed onto an SSL VPN tunnel from the FortiGate unit side?
A. A static route must be configured by the administrator using the ssl.root interface as the outgoing
interface.
B. Assignment of an IP address to the client causes a host route to be added to the FortiGate unit's
kernel routing table.
C. A route back to the SSLVPN IP pool is automatically created on the FortiGate unit.
D. The FortiGate unit adds a route based upon the destination address in the SSL VPN firewall policy.
Answer: B

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6. In an IPSec gateway-to-gateway configuration, two FortiGate units create a VPN tunnel
between two separate private networks.
Which of the following configuration steps must be performed on both FortiGate units to support
this configuration? (Select all that apply.)
A. Create firewall policies to control traffic between the IP source and destination address.
B. Configure the appropriate user groups on the FortiGate units to allow users access to the IPSec
VPN connection.
C. Set the operating mode of the FortiGate unit to IPSec VPN mode.
D. Define the Phase 2 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to create a VPN tunnel with the
remote peer.
E. Define the Phase 1 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to authenticate the remote peers.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. A client can create a secure connection to a FortiGate device using SSL VPN in web-only mode.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of web-only mode SSL VPN?
A. Web-only mode supports SSL version 3 only.
B. A Fortinet-supplied plug-in is required on the web client to use web-only mode SSL VPN.
C. Web-only mode requires the user to have a web browser that supports 64-bit cipher length.
D. The JAVA run-time environment must be installed on the client to be able to connect to a
web-only mode SSL VPN.
Answer: C

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8. A FortiGate AntiVirus profile can be configured to scan for viruses on SMTP , FTP , POP3, and
SMB protocols using which inspection mode?
A. Proxy
B. DNS
C. Flow-based
D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: C

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9. Which of the following statements are correct regarding URL filtering on the FortiGate unit?
(Select all that apply.)
A. The allowed actions for URL Filtering include Allow, Block and Exempt.
B. The allowed actions for URL Filtering are Allow and Block.
C. The FortiGate unit can filter URLs based on patterns using text and regular expressions.
D. Any URL accessible by a web browser can be blocked using URL Filtering.
E. Multiple URL Filter lists can be added to a single protection profile.
Answer: A,C

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10. An administrator wants to assign a set of UTM features to a group of users.
Which of the following is the correct method for doing this?
A. Enable a set of unique UTM profiles under "Edit User Group".
B. The administrator must enable the UTM profiles in an identity-based policy applicable to the user
group.
C. When defining the UTM objects, the administrator must list the user groups which will use the
UTM object.
D. The administrator must apply the UTM features directly to a user object.
Answer: B

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11. An end user logs into the full-access SSL VPN portal and selects the Tunnel Mode option by
clicking on the "Connect" button. The administrator has enabled split tunneling.
Given that the user authenticates against the SSL VPN policy shown in the image below, which
statement below identifies the route that is added to the client's routing table.
A. A route to destination matching the 'WIN2K3' address object.
B. A route to the destination matching the 'all' address object.
C. A default route.
D. No route is added.
Answer: A

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12. A client can establish a secure connection to a corporate network using SSL VPN in tunnel
mode.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of tunnel mode SSL VPN? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Split tunneling can be enabled when using tunnel mode SSL VPN.
B. Client software is required to be able to use a tunnel mode SSL VPN.
C. Users attempting to create a tunnel mode SSL VPN connection must be authenticated by at least
one SSL VPN policy.
D. The source IP address used by the client for the tunnel mode SSL VPN is assigned by the FortiGate
unit.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.4 Which statement is correct regarding virus scanning on a FortiGate unit?
A. Virus scanning is enabled by default.
B. Fortinet Customer Support enables virus scanning remotely for you.
C. Virus scanning must be enabled in a UTM security profile and the UTM security profile must be
assigned to a firewall policy.
D. Enabling virus scanning in a UTM security profile enables virus scanning for all traffic flowing
through the FortiGate device.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When firewall policy authentication is enabled, only traffic on supported protocols will trigger
an authentication challenge.
Select all supported protocols from the following:
A. SMTP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. FTP
E. SCP
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: EX0-102
Exam Name: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What does MOF organize?
A. Activities and processes into SMF, which are grouped together in phases that mirror the IT service
lifecycle.
B. Activities and processes into phases, which are grouped into SMFs that mirror the IT service lifecycle.
C. Activities and processes into SMFs, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
D. Activities and processes into phases, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a goal of the Plan phase?
A. Delivered Services are adaptable to the changing needs of the business
B. Packaged product deployments are deployed in line with business requirements
C. To ensure that deployed services operated in line with the agreed-to SLA targets
D. To establish an integrated approach to IT Service Management activities
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the SMFs in the Operate Phase?
A. All SMFs feed the Deliver Phase.
B. The Customer Service SMF focuses on how to resolve complex problems.
C. The SMFs are dependant on each other.
D. The SMFs are sequential.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What do the goals of the Reliability SMF include?
A. Service maintainability is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
B. Service Continuity is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What do the steps to setting policy not include?
A. reviewing legal compliance
B. review and maintain policies
C. publish policies
D. validate policies
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Define service requirements
B. Monitoring and improving plans
C. Planning
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which SMF provides root cause analysis?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Stabilizing
D. Testing
Answer: B

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NO.8 Is the Portfolio Management Review focused on understanding the state of supply and demand for IT
services and directing investments to make sure that the business value of IT is realized?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement of the IT service lifecycle is not correct?
A. It isolates risk to the Operate phase.
B. It addresses the design and delivery of the IT service.
C. It describes the life of an IT service.
D. It represents planning and optimizing the IT service to align with the business strategy.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?
A. Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer
B. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase
C. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase
D. Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase
Answer: C

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NO.12 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which is a goal of MOF?
A. ensure that business oversight governs IT service lifecycle activity to promote business/IT alignment
B. ensure that the investment in IT delivers expected business value at an acceptable level of risk
C. provide guidance to Finance and Accounting groups to successfully audit services delivered by IT
D. provide a common reference standard for any enterprise offering IT services to internal and external
customers
Answer: B

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NO.14 What does the focus of the Change and Configuration SMF in the Plan phase include?
A. Architectural change
B. Corporate strategy transfer to IT strategy
C. Legal and compliance representation
D. Process and procedure
Answer: A

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NO.15 What Management Review (MR) determines whether IT is working on the right things and clarifies the
business value of proposed projects?
A. Policy and Control
B. Portfolio
C. Release Readiness
D. Service Alignment
Answer: B

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